I am working on non linear realization of Goldstone bosons, as is done by Weinberg in section 19.6 of Quantum theory of fields, volume II.
We have a real, compact and connected Lie group $G$ with as subgroup $H$. Let $t_a$ be the generators of $H$, and $x_i$ be the generators left over (broken generators) such that they together span the Lie group of $G$, $\mathfrak g$. A general element of $G$ can then, to my understanding, be written $$ g = \exp\{i(\xi_i x_i + \theta_a t_a)\}. $$ However, Weinberg claims we can write (eq 19.6.12) $$ g = \exp\{i \xi_i' x_i \} \exp\{i\theta_a' t_a\}. $$ This is also used in other sources that tackles the same material. Why is this true? It seems plausible to me, by looking at $SO(3)$ as an example, however I have not seen a proof nor any real justification for this form.
Edit: So I investigated the origin of the claim, which as Cosmas states in the comments is this paper by CWZ. The statement here is qualified as "in some neighbourhood of $G$, any element $g \in G$ can be uniquely decomposed as $g = \exp(i \xi_i xi)\exp(i \theta_a t_a)$. This is a weaker statement, and seems straight forward from the inverse function theorem.