0
$\begingroup$

I'm facing some conceptual doubts related to the resolution of identity in Quantum mechanics while converting from Bra-ket notation to an integration.

For example, say we have an operator $\hat{A}$, such that we know $\langle\hat{A}\rangle = \frac{\langle\psi|\hat{A}|\psi\rangle}{\langle\psi|\psi\rangle}$.

We know the Identity operator such that : $\space\hat{1} = \int dx|x\rangle\langle x|$.

We can input this, in the expression for expectation value, to get an integral of the form $\langle\hat{A}\rangle=\int\psi^*(x)f(x)\psi(x)dx$.

However, say we have a new basis $u=g(x).$, and our wavefunction has become $\psi(u)=\psi(g(x))$. I now want to find the new expectation value for the operator $\hat{A}$. One simple way would be to write the integral in $x$ basis and then use the chain rule to convert everything in terms of $u$ and evaluate the integral. However, I want to do the integral directly in terms of $u$.

Can we directly say $\hat{1} = \int du|u\rangle\langle u|$ ? If I want to write this integral in this $u$ basis, how should I proceed?

For example, $$\langle\hat{A}\rangle = \frac{\langle\psi|\hat{A}|\psi\rangle}{\langle\psi|\psi\rangle} = \frac{\langle\psi|\int du |u\rangle\langle u|\hat{A}\int du'|u'\rangle\langle u'|\psi\rangle}{\langle\psi\int|u\rangle\langle u|\psi\rangle}=\frac{\int du'\int du \space\psi^*(u) h(u)\psi(u')\delta(u-u')}{\int du\space \psi^*(u)\psi(u)}$$

Here $h(u)$ is the representation of the operator in the $u$ basis. However, I run into a small problem here.

If I evaluate the above integral, I get the form :

$$\langle\hat{A}\rangle = \frac{\int \psi^*(u)h(u)\psi(u)du}{\int \psi^*(u)\psi(u) du}$$

This form doesn't seem to be correct at all. For example, I can derive the same expression in a different way i.e. using the chain rule. In that case, we would obtain :

$$\langle \hat{A}\rangle = \frac{\int\psi^*(g(x))f(x)\psi(g(x))dx}{\int\psi^*(g(x))\psi(g(x))dx}=\frac{\int\psi^*(u)f\space o\space g^{-1}(u)\psi(u)\frac{du}{g' \space o \space g^{-1}(u)}}{\int\psi^*(u)\psi(u)\frac{du}{g' \space o \space g^{-1}(u)}}$$

As we can clearly compare $h(u) = f\space o\space g^{-1}(u)$. However, where is the $g' \space o\space g^{-1}(u)$ term, present under the differential $du$ come from ?

Using the chain rule,I'm obtaining a different expression to the one I obtained by directly trying to represent the expectation value in the $u=g(x)$ basis, in Dirac notation.

This leads me to believe that my assertion that $\space\hat{1} = \int dx|x\rangle\langle x|$ automatically implies that $\hat{1} = \int du|u\rangle\langle u|$ is incorrect. Can anyone show me where that extra factor under the integral is coming from without using the chain rule. In a way, I'm asking how does Dirac notation encapsulate the Chain rule in the integration change of variables. I can easily notice how the Dirac notation encapsulates the change in the basis for the operator. The operator $f(x)$ in $x$ basis becomes $h(u)=f\space o\space g^{-1}(u)$ in the $u=g(x)$ basis.However, why does $dx$ doesn't directly become $du$. Instead, there is a factor dividing it. This is quite obvious using the chain rule. However, I don't see how this happens in Dirac notation, when I try to represent the integral in terms of $u$ directly.

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

the question is a question of regularization and normalization of the wave-functions and basis vectors, which for continuous sets is not immediatly clear.

Let's try to see what is needed for $1 = \int du |u\rangle \langle u|$ to happen $$ \int du |u\rangle \langle u| = \int dx dx' du |x\rangle \langle x | u \rangle \langle u | x' \rangle \langle x' | = \int dx dx' du u(x)u^*(x') |x\rangle \langle x'| \stackrel{?}{=} \int dx |x\rangle \langle x|$$ so we want $$\int du u(x) u^*(x') = \delta(x-x')$$ which already sets a normalization and orthogonality constraint on $u(x)$, not all $u$ will automatically maintain that!

Some such changes of basis will indeed only result in a constant factor, for example his is what happens if we will move to a momentum-basis like set of functions $u(x) = \exp(i u x)$ and then $\int du u(x) u^*(x') = 2\pi \delta(x-x')$. So we will just have to divide by $2\pi$ for every time we insert the "identity". However some such changes might be more problematic, so it really depends on your choice of $u(x)$.

$\endgroup$
7
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks ! In case of the momentum basis transformation, I'm dividing by this constant every time I insert the identity. In case of some complicated basis transformation, I'd have to insert some function ( which may be a constant ), every time I introduce the identity operator. Is that correct ? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 25, 2021 at 11:15
  • $\begingroup$ That is where that extra term under the differential $du$ comes from, right ? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 25, 2021 at 11:16
  • $\begingroup$ yes, the term comes from the Jacobian when we change variables of integration, or from the proper normalization of the basis of $|u\rangle$ states $\endgroup$
    – user275556
    Commented Oct 25, 2021 at 12:17
  • $\begingroup$ Yeah, in the case of the jacobian, it is quite obvious when one uses the change of variables method. However, using the Dirac notation directly in deriving the integral, seems a lot more difficult. For example, I suppose we can say something like $\int dx |x\rangle\langle x|= \hat{1}$ implies that $\int \frac{du\space |u\rangle\langle u|}{h(u)} =\hat{1}$, where $h(u)$ is some function or (some constant as we saw in case of momentum basis). This is true when $u=g(x)$. Hence, any time we insert $\hat{1}$, we need to divide the integral by $h(u)$. Is this an acceptable summary? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 25, 2021 at 13:20
  • $\begingroup$ $\int du |u\rangle \langle u| \propto I$ only if $|u\rangle$ satisfies the condition that it is a complete (or over-complete) set. The coefficient as you write it $h(u)$ implies that it depends on $u$ but that cannot be as it was integrated over (unless it means that it depends on the properties of the entire set of $|u\rangle$). But yes, if you have $|u\rangle$ such that $\int du |u\rangle \langle u| = A I $ for some fixed $A$, you just need to divide by it every time you insert the identity $\endgroup$
    – user275556
    Commented Oct 25, 2021 at 13:30

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.