A sphere of radius $R$ carries a polarization $$\mathbf P(\mathbf r)=k\mathbf r$$ where $k$ is a constant and $r$ is the vector from the center.
(a) Calculate the bound charges $\sigma_b$ and $\rho_b$.
(b) Find the field inside and outside the sphere.
For $r>R$ I calculated the electric field to be zero and for $r<R$, I calculated the electric field to be $E = -\frac{kr}{\epsilon_0} \hat{r}$. I was reading the next chapter of Griffiths E&M about electric displacement and I went back to this problem to find the electric field using this method and check the results. The electric displacement is $D = \epsilon_0 E + P$ and \begin{equation} \int D \cdot da = (Q_f)_{\text{enc}} \end{equation} Since there are no free charges in this problem, we have that $D=0$, so \begin{equation} D = \epsilon_0 E + P=0 \;\;\;\; \implies E = -\frac{P}{\epsilon_0} \end{equation} This works out for the case $r<R$. However, for $r>R$, we should get $E=0$, which implies that $P=0$ for $r>R$. But the polarization is defined as $P(r) = kr$ which is not zero for $r>R$. My question is how would one intuitively deduce this without calculating the electric field first? For this example, I think it is because the volume density and surface charge density cancel each other out. Since $\sigma = kR $ and $\rho = -3k$ \begin{equation} Q_{\text{total}} = \sigma A + \rho V = 4\pi k R^3 -3k\left(\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3\right) = 0 \end{equation} But I have not been able to find much about it online so I am not sure of this logic. In more complicated cases how would I be able to deduce the polarization is zero in some regions?