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I'm at a point in a course where we haven't talked about Hermitian operators or matrix mechanics. I have a Hamiltonian $H=-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2}{dx^2}+\frac{m\omega^2x^2}{2}$ (a quantum harmonic oscillator) and need to show the orthogonality of the eigenstates.

What I've been trying to do is write down the Schrodinger equation, multiply by another state, then integrate: $$H\Psi_m = E_m \Psi_m \to \int \Psi_n^* H\Psi_m dx = E_m \int \Psi_n^* \Psi_m$$ $$H^* \Psi^*_n = E_n^* \Psi^*_n = E_n \Psi_n^* \to \int H^* \Psi^*_n \Psi_m dx = E_n \int \Psi_n^* \Psi_m$$ then I can subtract the right equation of the first line from the second. I know that since the Hamiltonian is Hermitian the LHS will be 0 - but I haven't yet been able to prove that the Hamiltonian can move and act on $\Psi_n^*$ for $n\neq m$

How can I show that $\int H^* \Psi^*_n \Psi_m dx = \int \Psi_n^* H\Psi_m dx$?

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  • $\begingroup$ Just substitute your hamiltonian and integrate by parts for the kinetic energy part $\endgroup$
    – MaxWell
    Commented Oct 10, 2021 at 6:03
  • $\begingroup$ More generally, left eigenstates are orthogonal to the right eigenstates. It is only for hermitian Hamiltonian that the two are related via simple hermitian conjugation. $\endgroup$
    – Roger V.
    Commented Oct 10, 2021 at 6:19
  • $\begingroup$ @MaxWell can you please expand on the integration by parts? If I substitute in $H$ to $H(\Psi_n^* \Psi_m)$ and compare to $\Psi_n^* H \Psi_m$, I wind up with an extra $\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} [\Psi_m\frac{d}{dx^2}\Psi_n^* + 2(\frac{d}{dx}\Psi_m)(\frac{d}{dx}\Psi_n^*)]$. I've been trying to integrate that and show it disappears with integration by parts but I seem to be going in circles $\endgroup$
    – ttshaw1
    Commented Oct 10, 2021 at 19:54

1 Answer 1

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Substituting $H$, the $\frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 x^2$ terms are trivial. We want to prove

$$ \int \left( \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_n^\ast \right)\psi_m dx = \int \psi_n^\ast \left( \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_m \right) dx $$

A fancy way

The previous is equivalent to

$$ I = \int \left[ \left( \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_n^\ast \right)\psi_m - \psi_n^\ast \left( \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_m \right) \right] dx = 0 $$

using

$$ \frac{d}{dx}\left[\left(\frac{d}{dx}\psi_n^\ast\right) \psi_m - \psi_n^\ast\left(\frac{d}{dx}\psi_m\right)\right] = \left( \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_n^\ast \right)\psi_m - \psi_n^\ast \left( \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_m \right) $$

then follows

$$ I = \left. \left[\left(\frac{d}{dx}\psi_n^\ast\right) \psi_m - \psi_n^\ast\left(\frac{d}{dx}\psi_m\right)\right]\right|_{-\infty}^{\infty} = 0 $$

thus proven.

Integration by parts

$$ \int \left( \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_n^\ast \right)\psi_m dx = \left. \psi_m\frac{d}{dx}\psi_n^\ast \right|_{-\infty}^{\infty} - \int \left (\frac{d}{dx}\psi_n^\ast \right) \left( \frac{d}{dx}\psi_m \right) dx = \\ \left. \left[\left(\frac{d}{dx}\psi_n^\ast\right) \psi_m - \psi_n^\ast\left(\frac{d}{dx}\psi_m\right)\right]\right|_{-\infty}^{\infty} + \int \psi_n^\ast \left( \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_m \right) dx $$

the term between square brackets goes to zero, leaving us with what we wanted to prove.

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  • $\begingroup$ Why does it go to zero? $\endgroup$
    – DanielC
    Commented Oct 12, 2021 at 0:08
  • $\begingroup$ @DanielC because the wave function needs to be square-integrable and thus it most tend to zero as coordinates go to infinity. $\endgroup$
    – MaxWell
    Commented Oct 12, 2021 at 1:17
  • $\begingroup$ If it is square-integrable, it needn't go to $0$ at infinity, so taking it to go to zero at infinity is nothing but a convenient assumption in the context in which operators are ignored. $\endgroup$
    – DanielC
    Commented Oct 12, 2021 at 2:13
  • $\begingroup$ In this case we're looking at energy eigenstates of a harmonic oscillator, so unless I'm gravely mistaken they will indeed go to zero at infinity due to confinement by the potential. @DanielC are you talking about a general case? My intuition is that maxwell's right that any normalizable function should go to zero at infinity $\endgroup$
    – ttshaw1
    Commented Oct 12, 2021 at 3:27
  • $\begingroup$ @DanielC I see that I am mistaken and in general a square-integrable function does not necessarily goes to zero. I found some questions and answers about it but couldn't follow. Do you know somewhere to read about it? $\endgroup$
    – MaxWell
    Commented Oct 12, 2021 at 4:37

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