In the theoretical scenario below:
Will the object rotate?
My first thoughts on this were:
The initial angular velocity is $0$. This means it does not have any angular momentum (right...?) and it theoretically will not rotate after the collision and it should not have any angular velocity (RiGhT?...) (due to conservation of momentum)? But that seems too good to be true as most objects should gain some form of rotation upon collision.
Then, I thought that maybe some of the impulse (upon collision) would be transferred to angular momentum and the rest to linear momentum, which is mostly going to cause it to rotate. Is my thinking correct here? If so, how do I calculate how much impulse is transferred into linear momentum and angular momentum?