In case the names are not standard: \begin{equation} \sigma_{\hat{A}}^{2}\sigma_{\hat{B}}^{2} \geq \left\vert \frac{1}{2i} \left\langle \left[\hat{A},\hat{B}\right] \right\rangle \right\vert^{2} + \left\vert \frac{1}{2} \left\langle \left\{\hat{A},\hat{B}\right\}\right\rangle - \left\langle\hat{A}\right\rangle \left\langle\hat{B}\right\rangle \right\vert^{2} \label{eq:1} \tag{Scrhödinger's Uncertainty Relation} \end{equation} \begin{equation} \sigma_{\hat{A}}\sigma_{\hat{B}} \geq \frac{\left\vert \left\langle \left[\hat{A},\hat{B}\right]\right\rangle \right\vert}{2} \label{eq:2} \tag{Robertson's Uncertainty Relation} \end{equation} Given $\hat{Q},\hat{P}$ observables such that $\left[\hat{Q},\hat{P}\right] = i\hbar$ \begin{equation} \sigma_{\hat{Q}}\sigma_{\hat{P}} \geq \frac{\hbar}{2} \label{eq:3} \tag{Uncertainty Relation for Cannonical Commuting Observables} \end{equation}
For \ref{eq:3}, we know that the equality is reached, meaning $\left[\hat{Q},\hat{P}\right] = i\hbar$ is a sufficient condition for \begin{equation} \left\vert \frac{1}{2} \left\langle \left\{\hat{A},\hat{B}\right\}\right\rangle - \left\langle\hat{A}\right\rangle \left\langle\hat{B}\right\rangle \right\vert^{2} = 0 \end{equation} on \ref{eq:1}. This is what I'm not able to prove.
An ideal answer would contain the necessary conditions for this - that the \ref{eq:1} turns out to be \ref{eq:2} and the equality is reached - to happen.
PD:
- I'm aware of how to derive \ref{eq:3} from the commutation relation by other means. I'm interested in what is mentioned above.
- In case it sounds like homework, hints or references are highly appreciated.