In the forced harmonic oscillator the velocity of the oscillator is given as -
$$V=Ap\cos(pt-\varphi)$$
where ,
$p$= the driving angular frequency,
$A$= amplitude of the forced harmonic oscillator.
Thus "$Ap$" together creates what we call the velocity amplitude and it is given as
$$V_0=\frac{f_0p}{\sqrt[2]{(\omega^2-p^2)^2+4b^2p^2}}$$
where ,
$\omega$=the natural frequency of the oscillator,
$b$=damping factor,
$V_0$= the velocity amplitude
Now, the book I am following again mentions something called as the resonant frequency and it is given as - $$V=V_0\cos(pt-\varphi)$$ Its is given that $v$ is maximum i.e resonant velocity occurs ,when $p=\omega$ in $V_0$ but it is not said the $\cos(pt-\varphi)$ should also be 1 in order for $v$ to be maximum. This is one of my doubts
The confusion I am facing is, there is not concrete definition of velocity amplitude and velocity resonance in my book and in the internet too ,what I assume velocity amplitude is that it is the maximum value of velocity that is given to the oscillator by the driving periodic force and the velocity resonance is the maximum velocity of the oscillator but I wanted to be confirmed that I am right or is there something else to these two guys.
So basically I want a proper definition about velocity resonance and velocity amplitude and also why $\cos(pt-\varphi)$ is not considered to be 1 for $v$ to become maximum only $p=\omega$ (in $V_0$) is considered for $V$ to become maximum.