I'm having a conceptual problem. The time-independent Schrodinger equation for a continuum state $\psi_{k, l}(r)$ is given by
$$ 0 = \left( - \frac{\nabla^2}{2} + v(r) - \frac{k^2}{2} \right) \psi_{k,l}(r) , $$
where $\nabla^2$ is the Laplacian, $v(r)$ some potential, $k$ the electron momentum. Expressing this as a matrix, I find real-valued eigenstates. However, textbooks and papers say the solution is
$$ \psi_{k,l}(r) \propto R_{k,l}(r) Y_{l,m}(\theta,\phi) e^{i \sigma_{k}}, $$
where $\sigma_k$ is known as the scattering phase shift. I understand how to interpret the phase shift - it is the phase difference in the asymptotic region between the eigenstate and a plane wave of the same momentum. Where, however, does this comparison come in when solving the Schrodinger equation?