I was reading this derivation of the equivalent spring constant for springs in series on Wikipedia:
(link to the page: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Series_and_parallel_springs)
However, I was confused when the site said that the force each spring experiences has to be the same. While this makes sense at equilibrium, I wasn't sure why it would have to be true in all cases. One reason I was considering was that, when compressing or expanding a spring by exerting a force F on it, it is impossible for F to be a value other than the value of the restoring force kx at any given time. Therefore, in this case where spring 1 is attached vertically to spring 2, and you apply an applied force downwards on spring 2, the force you apply is equal to kx2 at all times, regardless of how hard you pull. But spring 2 and spring 1 also stretch each other with their restoring forces, which would have to be equal in order to have equal and opposite forces between two objects. Therefore, the restoring force of spring 1 and the restoring force of spring 2 must be equal, and they both equal the applied force $F$ at all times.
I also tried testing this empirically, and it seemed to back up this thinking. I pulled on a spring as hard as I could then released the spring, and I saw that the spring instantaneously began to return to its equilibrium position. This implies that the work I did on the spring did not increase its kinetic energy, instead only changing its spring potential energy. Therefore, the work I did was $(1/2)kx^2$, indicating that the force I applied at a specific distance x was kx, regardless of how hard I pulled.
Is my thinking correct that a force that is compressing or stretching a spring must equal $kx$ in magnitude at all times, or am I mistaken?