I'd like to know which parts of the following is due to convention and which part has to be a certain way.
Let's assume a complex scalar field $\phi(x)$ with Lagrangian: $$ \mathcal L = \partial_\mu \phi^\dagger \partial^\mu \phi - m^2 \phi^\dagger \phi. \tag{1} $$ The solutions of the Euler--Lagrange equations are usually written as (I'll use the notation of Schwartz' QFT book, e.g., eqs. (9.14) and (9.15)): $$ \begin{align} \phi &= \int\frac{\text{d}^3p}{(2\pi)^3}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\omega_p}}\left[ a_p \text{e}^{-\text{i} p\cdot x} + b_p^\dagger \text{e}^{\text{i} p\cdot x} \right] \tag{2} \\ \phi^\dagger &= \int\frac{\text{d}^3p}{(2\pi)^3}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\omega_p}}\left[ a_p^\dagger \text{e}^{-\text{i} p\cdot x} + b_p \text{e}^{\text{i} p\cdot x} \right] \tag{3} \end{align} $$ Question 1: Is it correct that $\phi$ annihilates a particle state via $a_p$ as in $\phi |\text{particle}\rangle=|0\rangle$ and creates an antiparticle state using $b^\dagger$ as in $\phi|0\rangle = |\text{antiparticle}\rangle$? Is there even room for debate to define $\phi^\dagger$ as a particle-creation/antiparticle-annihilation operator?
Now for the propagator, I'd like to write down the propagation of a particle.
Question 2: Which of the following is the correct expression for the propagation of a particle?
$$ \begin{align} G_\text{particle}(x,y) &= \langle 0| \phi(x)\phi^\dagger(y) |0\rangle \tag{4} \\ G_\text{particle}(x,y) &= \langle 0| \phi(x)^\dagger\phi(y) |0\rangle \tag{5} \end{align} $$ I think it should be eq. (4), since we should first create a particle using $\phi^\dagger(y) |0\rangle$, which can then be annihilated by $\phi(x)$.