The usual argument I’ve seen is that, well, if you have some separable (unentangled) pure state $|\psi\rangle= |\psi_1\rangle \otimes |\psi_2\rangle $ then $\text{Tr}_2 (|\psi\rangle \langle \psi|) = |\psi_1\rangle \langle \psi_1 |$ and therefore the entropy of entanglement $S_E$ between subsystem $1$ and $2$ is $0$ as $$ S_E(\rho, 1|2)= S_N(\rho_1), $$ where $S_N$ is the Von Neumann entropy and $\rho_1$ is the reduced density matrix describing subsystem $1$. There is no doubt about the above.
Now, why is this a reversible statement? Why if $S_E(\rho, 1|2) \neq 0$ then subsystem $1$ is entangled with subsystem $2$.