I would like to follow up on this question. The Bogoliubov transformation is written as follows (I assume that $u_{\mathbf{k}} = u_k$ and $v_{\mathbf{k}} = v_k$ as well as $u_k, v_k\in\mathbb{R}$):
\begin{equation}\begin{aligned} c_{k, \uparrow} &=u_{k} d_{k, \uparrow}+v_{k} d_{-k, \downarrow}^{\dagger} \qquad (1.1) \\ c_{-k, \downarrow}^{\dagger} &=u_{k} d_{-k \downarrow}^{\dagger} - v_{k} d_{k, \uparrow} \qquad \ (1.2) \end{aligned}\end{equation}
Question: Why do we get in the transition from Eq. $(1.1)$ to $(1.2)$ a minus sign in front of the second term in Eq. $(1.2)$? After all, shouldn't we able to derive $(1.2)$ from $(1.1)$?