0
$\begingroup$

Faraday's law of induction can be expanded:$$V=-N\frac{d(BA)}{dt}$$ and for a circuit which creates an area between the wires if that area doesn't change then it becomes $$V=-N\frac{dB}{dt}A$$ The area of the formula is well defined. Suppose a capacitor is being (dis)charged during the (dis)charge a magnetic field is created inside the capacitor. What I don't get is what does the electric flux mean in the formula, of which area do we find $d(EA)/dt$ in order to get the magnetic field?

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

0
$\begingroup$

It looks like you're asking about the Ampere-Maxwell Law, $$ \oint_{\Gamma}{\mathbf{B}\cdot\,d\mathbf{l}} = \mu_0\int_\mathcal{S}{\mathbf{J}\cdot\,d\mathbf{a}} + \mu_0\epsilon_0\,\frac{d}{dt}\int_\mathcal{S}{\mathbf{E}\cdot\,d\mathbf{a}}. \tag{1}$$ Here, $\Gamma$ is a fixed closed loop in space and $\mathcal{S}$ is any surface bounded by $\Gamma$. So, yes, we do have some freedom in choosing the surface through which to calculate the flux of $\mathbf{J}$ and $\mathbf{E}$.

The point is that the RHS of Eq. $(1)$ is the same, regardless of which surface we choose (so long as it is still bounded by the loop $\Gamma$). This is because the combination $\mathbf{J} + \epsilon_0\frac{\partial \mathbf{E}}{\partial t}$ is divergenceless (see end of post), as we can quickly show using the continuity equation and Gauss's Law: $$ \begin{split} \nabla\cdot\left(\mathbf{J} + \epsilon_0\frac{\partial \mathbf{E}}{\partial t}\right) &= \nabla\cdot\mathbf{J} + \epsilon_0\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\left(\nabla\cdot\mathbf{E}\right) \\ &= -\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t} + \frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t} = 0. \end{split} $$ (Alternatively, we could have noted that $\mathbf{J} + \epsilon_0\frac{\partial \mathbf{E}}{\partial t}$ is the curl of $\mathbf{B}/\mu_0$, and the divergence of a curl is always zero.)

Theorem: Let a vector field $\mathbf{A}$ be divergenceless. Then for a given loop $\Gamma$, the flux of $\mathbf{A}$ is the same through any surface bounded by $\Gamma$.

Proof: Call $C_1$ the flux of $\mathbf{A}$ out of a surface $\mathcal{S}_1$ bounded by $\Gamma$ and $C_2$ its flux through a second surface $\mathcal{S}_2$, also bounded by $\Gamma$. The flux of $\mathbf{A}$ out of the closed surface formed by $\mathcal{S}_1$ and $\mathcal{S}_2$ is zero (by the Divergence Theorem), so $C_1 = C_2$.

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

From your description I suspect your confusion arises because until now you have encountered Faraday's law always in conjunction with a wire loop or with a coil (made up of several wire loops). But this isn't necessary. Faraday's law is independent of any wire. Actually Faraday's law is just a relation between the electric field $\mathbf E$ and the magnetic field $\mathbf B$. $$\oint_C \mathbf E\ d\mathbf l = - \frac{d}{dt} \int_A \mathbf B\ d\mathbf A$$ where $C$ is a closed curve enclosing an area $A$. The integral on the right side is the magnetic flux (or the number of magnetic field lines) passing through the area $A$. Notice that this formulation does not mention any wire at all. But of course, for technical applications with wires it makes sense to choose the curve $C$ along the wire loop.

And now for your problem with a (dis)charging capacitor. We have a similar situation like above for the Ampere-Maxwell law: $$\frac{1}{\mu_0}\oint_C \mathbf B\ d\mathbf l = I_\text{enclosed} + \epsilon_0 \frac{d}{dt} \int_A \mathbf E\ d\mathbf A$$ The integral on the right side is the electric flux (or the number of electric field lines) passing through the area $A$. You can choose any closed curve $C$ you want. But for practical purpose (calculating the magnetic field inside the capacitor) it will make the most sense to use a circle or a square parallel to the plates of the capacitor.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.