In Srednicki, $$\begin{align*} \left[\varphi^{+}(x),\varphi^{-}(x^\prime)\right]_\mp=&\int\widetilde{\mathrm{d}k}\int\widetilde{\mathrm{d}k^\prime}\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}(kx-k^\prime x^\prime)}\left[a(\boldsymbol{k}),a^\dagger(\boldsymbol{k^\prime})\right]\\ =&\int\frac{\mathrm{d}^3k}{(2\pi)^22\omega}\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}k(x-x^\prime)}\tag{4.12,halfway} \end{align*}$$ where $\omega=\sqrt{\boldsymbol{k}^2+m^2}$.
Srednicki says this formula is equal to $$ \frac{m}{4\pi^2 r}K_1(mr)\tag{4.12} $$ where $K_1$ is modified Bessel function, and $r^2=(x-x^\prime)^2>0$.
The answer says this formula can be rearranged: $$\begin{align*} \int\frac{\mathrm{d}^3k}{(2\pi)^22\omega}\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}k(x-x^\prime)}=&\frac{2\pi}{2(2\pi)^3} \int_0^\infty\frac{\mathrm{d}k}{\omega}k^2\int_{-1}^1\mathrm{d}\cos{\theta}\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}kr\cos{\theta}}\\ =&\frac{1}{4\pi^2 r}\int_0^\infty\mathrm{d}k\frac{k\sin{kr}}{\sqrt{k^2+m^2}}. \end{align*}$$ This is just a polar conversion.
Why is the last formula equal to eq. (4.12)?