# Faraday's Law - When do we know when it is a motional EMF or an induced electric field?

So from what I know, Faraday's law states that when there is a change in magnetic flux, an EMF is induced.

This can be explained with motional EMF where when the magnet moves towards the conducting loop, in the reference frame of the magnet, the conducting loop is actually moving towards it. Hence, motional EMF can be applied where the magnetic force causes the charges to move, hence EMF is induced.

However, there is also the explanation of changing magnetic fields induces non-conservative curling electric fields according to Maxwell's equations, hence when there is a conducting loop, this induced electric field causes a the charges to move, hence EMF is induced.

My question is, how can we differentiate these 2 completely different scenarios from each other? Or are they the same scenarios?

• The term 'magnetic force' is just a general way of referring to a force produced by a magnetic field. Search up 'Lorentz Force derivation' and you'll find how the expression $e=vcrossBdotl$ came into existence. Spoiler: it's caused by an induced electric field within the conductor. – CannedOrgi May 28 at 18:09