I'm beginning to revise the basic concepts of statistical mechanics and I came across the definition of thermal equilibrium.
'Two thermodynamic systems are in thermal equilibrium with each other if there is no net flow of thermal energy between them.'
There's also this:
'A system is said to be in thermal equilibrium with itself if the temperature within the system is spatially uniform and temporally constant.'
My question is simple: does the absence of exchange of thermal energy mean that both systems are at the same temperature?
I would answer yes, but I'm still on the fence about this because the commenters of the following post give opposite answers: