Is it true that any bipartite state that is "measurably independent" is separable?
I am defining a state $|\psi \rangle \in A \otimes B$ to be "measurably independent" if:
The probabilities of the different outcomes of a measurement of any observable $\hat{O}_B$ of system $B$ is not affected by a preceding measurement of any observable $\hat{O}_A$ of system $A$, and vice versa.
I am asking since entanglement is typically defined in terms of separability, but intuitively I think of entanglement as a violation of measurable independence. It is easy to show that separable states are measurably independent, but might there be measurably independent states that aren't separable?
So far, by setting $\hat{O}_A$ and $\hat{O}_B$ to projection operators $|\phi_A\rangle \langle \phi_A|$ and $|\phi_B\rangle \langle \phi_B|$ for states $|\phi_A\rangle \in A$ and $|\phi_B\rangle \in B$, I can show that: $$ P(|\phi_A\rangle,|\phi_B\rangle)=P(|\phi_A\rangle)P(|\phi_B\rangle) $$ for any measurable state and any states $|\phi_A\rangle$ and $|\phi_B\rangle$ ($P$ stands for probability). If I can show that for measurably independent states we always have some $|\phi_A\rangle$ and $|\phi_B\rangle$ such that $P\left(|\phi_A\rangle\right)=P(|\phi_A\rangle)=1$ then the proof is done, but I'm stuck at this step.