I am currently working on [Introduction to Electrodynamics] of David J.Griffiths, chapter 9.5.3.
The book says: In the coaxial transmission line of inner radius a and outer radius b, TEM modes are admitted so that we have $$\frac{\partial E_x}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial E_y}{\partial y}=0\\ \frac{\partial E_y}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial E_x}{\partial y}=0\\ \frac{\partial B_x}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial B_y}{\partial y}=0\\ \frac{\partial B_y}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial B_x}{\partial y}=0 $$ from Maxwell's equations together with $\rho = \mathbf{J} = 0$. The equations are those of electrostatics and magnetostatics in two dimensions.
I understood so far. But here's what I don't understand :
Since the equations are those of electrostatics and magnetostatics in two dimensions, the solution can be borrowed from the case of an infinite line charge and an infinite straight current, so
$$\mathbf{E_0} = \frac{A}{s} \mathbf{\hat{s}}, \mathbf{B_0}=\frac{A}{cs}\mathbf{\hat{\phi}} $$.
I partially understood that if there are cylindrical symmetry in electrostatics then the only situation that can occur is infinite line charge, but there can not only be a infinite line, but also a infinite cylindrical surface charge, etc. How can we just put $\mathbf{E_0} = \frac{A}{s} \mathbf{\hat{s}}$ given that the coaxial line is not a single line at s=0?