I read wiki about superdeterminism and Bell's theorem and the lecture on free will, and I struggle to understand what free will has to do with the Bell's theorem.
From my understanding, for Bell's inequality to be true, one requires local realism and that the hidden variables associated with Alice, Bob and detector ($a$, $b$ and $\lambda$) to be uncorrelated, from which one can derive the CHSH inequality, which is almost the same thing as Bell's inequality. Therefore, if the Bell's inequality is violated we have to either give up local realism or the absence of correlation between $a$, $b$ and $\lambda$. Gerard 't Hooft in his Cellular Automaton interpretation of quantum mechanics on p. 43 derives the conditional probability function for $\lambda$, given $a$ and $b$ (in certain interpretation of the variables):
$$
P( \lambda|a, b)=\frac{1}{2}|\sin(4\lambda-2a-2b)|.\tag{1}
$$
From the said above, it would seem, that whenever one wants to build a classical theory that matches quantum measurements, they would have to make sure the conditional probability (1) holds no matter what. To me, this is the gist of the problem, since the chaotic behavior of the external noise usually kills any correlations between spatially separated systems over time, given the noise actually influences the hidden variables. And if the noise does not influence $a$, $b$ and $\lambda$, then they are constants of motion and the outcomes of the experiment are going to be always the same! I cannot even think of what kind of system would have such bizarre property that the individual variables are influenced by noise, but the mutual correlation would not be destroyed.
Of course, one could hypothetically solve the equations of motion backwards and actually obtain the configuration of noise that would produce the desired correlation. But then, the predictive power of such theory would be close to zero, since even though the noise preserved the correlation till now (for which we performed the fitting), it is not guarantied to preserve it in the future.
Where does "free will" comes into play here? There seem to be no point where it would be invoked into the argument.