It is commonly stated that if you have a filled subshell, such as $p^6$ or $d^{10}$ that one must have $L=S=0$ implying $J=0$ and $M_J=0$ so that the atom is spherically symmetric.
Why is it clear that $L=S=0$?
It is clear to me that $M_L=M_S=0$. This is because for every electron with $m_l$ or $m_s$ there is another electron with $-m_l$ and $-m_s$ So clearly $M_L=\sum_i m_{l_i} =0$ and likewise for $S$.
But generally speaking, if you add up multiple spins and find $M_L=M_S=0$ this is NOT sufficient condition to have $L=S=0$.
This is clear with the two spin-1/2 triplet state which is well known to have total spin $S=1$:
$$ |\uparrow \downarrow \rangle + |\downarrow \uparrow\rangle $$
I desire a proof that for filled shells we get the above property. I know that the answer is related to the requirement of antisymmetrization for the electron wavefunctions. For example, the triplet wavefunction above is not anti-symmetric. If I took the anti-symmetric combination I'd have the singlet which DOES satisfy $S=0$ as needed. However, I'd like a proof of how the requirement for anti-symmetrization leads to $L=S=0$ for any value of $L$ and $2(2L+1)$ electrons.
There are a number of similar questions on this site which I can link if desired. None of those provide satisfying proofs of the kind I'm desiring. Sometimes they point out that $M_L=M_S=0$ and leave it at that. Sometimes they point this out and wave their hands at anti-symmetrization and call it done. I'd like something more convincing.
The reason this whole situations concerns me is it seems like certain angular momentum states are inaccessible for fermions and bosons in a way that seems stronger to me than what is implied by Pauli-exclusion. Though perhaps I underestimate Pauli-exclusion. I guess this says that if I have, for example, 6 $p$ electrons then there is only ONE state they can occupy. But the general theory of angular momentum addition says that these 6 spin-$1/2$ particles with spin-1 orbital angular momentum should have like 36 angular momentum states they should occupy from $J=0$ to $J=9$.
Clearly I'm not thinking about this correct. I'd appreciate seeing the proof I'm looking for and having my intuition on Pauli anti-symmetrization clarified.
edit: the answer to this question Dimension of Hilbert space of spin $1/2$ identical particles? addresses my intuition about Pauli-exclusion. The short answer is that yes, a lot of angular momentum states that would be allowed for distinguishable particles are simply deleted when considering Fermions. I still seek a convincing proof for arbitrary $L$, that, after applying anti-symmetrization, the only state which remains in the $S=L=J=0$ state.