I saw in this answer that the atmospheric pressure is conveniently canceled mathematically when taking the atmospheric pressure at the level of the top of the object.
However, when I was inventing cases to practice buoyancy it occurred to me to derive the same thing taking into account the buoyant force of the air on the object, assuming that the density of the air is constant as the change of height is very very low.
Assuming that the point at the top of the object has pressure $ P_{top} $ and in the waterline the pressure is atmospheric. I can express the buoyant force of the air on the object as.
$$ P_{atm} = P_{top} + \rho_{air} g h \\ A(P_{atm} - P_{top}) = A\rho_{air} g h \\ F_{atm} - F_{top} = A\rho_{air} g h \\\ F_{buoyant-air} = A\rho_{air} g h $$
Using some random numbers, as assuming a cross-area of $ 1 m^2 $ and that the height of the part of the object not submerged in water is also $ 1 m $ the force exerted by the air at the top is $ ~11.76 N $
If the other half of the object, of also $ 1 m $ is underwater, the buoyant force of the water is around $ ~9800 N $ so one could say that the one by the air is negligible in comparison.
Otherwise, the net force of the fluids on the object would be:
$$ F_{air-top} = A(P_{Atm} - \rho_{air}gh) \\ F_{water-bottom} = A(P_{Atm} + \rho_{water}gh) \\ F_{buoyant-air-water} = F_{water-bottom} - F_{air-top} = A\rho_{water}gh + A\rho_{air}gh $$
I'm wondering if this actually the case? Are we implicitly neglecting the buoyant force of the air and focusing on only the water buoyancy when calculating the buoyancy of a half-submerged object?