A common method to show the equivalence of the Clausius and Kelvin statements of the 2nd law is to show that breaking Kelvin implies breaking Clausius and vice versa. I understand the logic for breaking Kelvin --> Clausius (take an ideal engine --> breaks Kelvin --> attach it to a fridge --> fridge also breaks Clausius). However, I have doubts about the following construction for the other direction:
We assume that a heat pump/refrigerator (on the left) pumps out heat from $T_L$ into $T_H$ without any work input (breaks Clausius). A non-ideal engine, which dumps $Q_L$ into the low temperature reservoir, is connected across the same temperatures.
The argument is that, as shown in the schematic below, the net system takes $Q = Q_H2 - Q_H1$ to output work $W$ without any heat output into the low temperature reservoir, which violates the Kelvin statement. Doesn't this only work when the heat pumped out by the fridge equals the heat dumped by the engine (two $Q_L$s are equal)? Would that not make the argument non-universal as it would not apply when the two $Q$ values are not equal?
Images from: https://www.ohio.edu/mechanical/thermo/Intro/Chapt.1_6/Chapter5.html