HUP is generally discussed (specially in traditional books) as a consequence of quantum mechanics that's generally better (or even only) illustrated with microscopic physics. Even though I'm not the most careful of people, I've been careful enough to consider this question under the light of a particularly strong formulation of the principle. Namely, the so-called Schrödinger-Robertson version of it (for two arbitrary observables $\hat{A}$ and $\hat{B}$: $$ \sigma_{A}^{2}\sigma_{B}^{2}\geq\left|\frac{1}{2}\langle\{\hat{A},\hat{B}\}\rangle-\langle\hat{A}\rangle\langle\hat{B}\rangle\right|^{2}+\left|\frac{1}{2i}\langle[\hat{A},\hat{B}]\rangle\right|^{2} $$ Generally, quantum commutators are $\hbar$-order expressions of their classical Poisson brackets. The first term can be safely ignored for systems that are deep into the classical regime --I think. The reason being that the anti-commutator term has correcting terms proportional to expected values, so that the expected value of the anti-commutator can be taken to be largely suppressed by the product of the corresponding expected values, say a second-order quantity when compared to the commutator term, (which is not suppressed) at least for quasi-classical observables.
So let's centre on the typically quantum term, the one given by the commutator. Taking as examples the standard operators for orbital angular momentum, and ignoring the anti-commutator, we get, $$ \triangle J_{x}\triangle J_{y}\geq\frac{\hbar}{2}\left|\left\langle J_{z}\right\rangle \right| $$ Now, the first thing that strikes someone like me is that these are generally very small quantities in comparison to $\left\langle J_{x}\right\rangle $ and $\left\langle J_{y}\right\rangle $. Except in case the expected value $\left\langle J_{z}\right\rangle$ is humongous! I'm thinking pulsars, magnetars, black holes, and the like.
Here's the question: Do you know of any examples in which these uncertainties of purely quantum origin could have macroscopically-observable consequences?
I do remember reported inconsistencies in the spectrum from quickly-rotating stellar objects (in directions other than their spin) back in the early 2000s that were attributed to dust. I'll try to dig that out to make the question more complete. But the question should make sense in and of itself.
Reformulation of the question
Apparently, I haven't been understood; and I have only myself to blame. I will re-edit it to everyone's satisfaction, I hope. Some people want to talk about dead cats; other people don't want to talk about dead stars. Fair enough.
Here's the thing, then. Let's say I'm talking about a "quantum quasar". What is it? For the purposes of discussion, let's say it's a quantum system that's in an eigenstate of spin, of such an expected high value that we can take the only relevant observables to be, $$ J_{x}=10^{120}\sigma_{x} $$ etc. All sigmas re-scaled to $10^{120}$, which is my lucky number. (I've removed the offending $\hbar$ factors, which play no part in the argument.) I've also removed any reference to Poisson brackets, which play no really essential part either.
Because of previously stated hypothesis, $$ \left|\psi\right\rangle =\left(\begin{array}{c} 1\\ 0 \end{array}\right) $$ Now, allow me to be laconic --because I've taken enough of your time already--.
$$ \left\langle J_{y}\right\rangle _{\left|\psi\right\rangle }=\left\langle \psi\left|10^{120}\sigma_{y}\right|\psi\right\rangle =\left(\begin{array}{cc} 1 & 0\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & -i10^{120}\\ i10^{120} & 0 \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{c} 1\\ 0 \end{array}\right)=0 $$ $$ \left\langle J_{x}\right\rangle _{\left|\psi\right\rangle }=\left\langle \psi\left|10^{120}\sigma_{x}\right|\psi\right\rangle =\left(\begin{array}{cc} 1 & 0\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & 10^{120}\\ 10^{120} & 0 \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{c} 1\\ 0 \end{array}\right)=0 $$ But, $$ \left\langle J_{z}\right\rangle _{\left|\psi\right\rangle }=\left\langle \psi\left|10^{120}\sigma_{z}\right|\psi\right\rangle =\left(\begin{array}{cc} 1 & 0\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{cc} 10^{120} & 0\\ 0 & -10^{120} \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{c} 1\\ 0 \end{array}\right)=10^{120}$$ Wow!
And what's worse:
$$ \left\langle J_{y}^{2}\right\rangle _{\left|\psi\right\rangle }=\left(\begin{array}{cc} 1 & 0\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & -i10^{120}\\ i10^{120} & 0 \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & -i10^{120}\\ i10^{120} & 0 \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{c} 1\\ 0 \end{array}\right)=10^{240} $$ $$ \left\langle J_{x}^{2}\right\rangle _{\left|\psi\right\rangle }=\left(\begin{array}{cc} 1 & 0\end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & 10^{120}\\ 10^{120} & 0 \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{cc} 0 & 10^{120}\\ 10^{120} & 0 \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{c} 1\\ 0 \end{array}\right)=10^{240} $$ Dispersion analysis: $$ \triangle_{\left|\psi\right\rangle }^{2}J_{x}\triangle_{\left|\psi\right\rangle }^{2}J_{y}=10^{480}\gg\frac{1}{4}10^{120}=2.5\times10^{118} $$ which is only ridiculously true. Measurable in any context? That is my question. So, please, understand me; I don't mean a state in which $J\left(J+1\right)$ is fixed, but you can play around with $J_x$, $J_y$, and $J_z$. I mean a $J_z$ eigenstate with very high expected value.
Note: I've removed my tag "astrophysics". Sorry, @CosmasZachos, and thank you for the illuminating aspects.