I am struggling to understand this supposedly simple problem I found in a highschool textbook.
A metallic plate is moving with constant velocity v in a region in which there is a uniform magnetic field (oriented as in figure).
Explain why the two surfaces with sides $a$ and $b$ are electrically charging. Is it correct to assume, in first approximation, that the charges are uniformly distributed?
Compute the surface charge density of the two surfaces and the potential difference between them.
Compute the current that is flowing through a conductor with resistance $R$ connecting the two surfaces.
Now, it seems the object is moving inside the region with the uniform magnetic field, it is not entering the region nor exiting.
In the reference frame assumed by the problem, in which we see the object moving, we consider uniform $\textbf{B}$ and no external electric field.
Thus, on each charge inside the conductor, a force $\textbf{F}=q \textbf{v}\times\textbf{B}$ is exerted. This force is perpendicular to both $\textbf{v}$ and $\textbf{B}$ and makes the charges inside the conductor separate.
This separation of charges let an electric field arise, which should stop the flow of charges, so no current is present.
Usually Faraday's law holds and the electromotive force is
$$\mathcal{E}=-\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}t}\int_\Sigma \textbf{B}\cdot \text{d}\textbf{A}.$$
Since there is not varying flux (for any surface I consider) then $\mathcal{E}=0$.
But I expect an internal electrostatic field to be present.
Question 1: How can I formally prove this conservative electric field to be $\textbf{E}=-\textbf{v}\times\textbf{B}$ other than with dynamics arguments? How to deal with $\oint_{\partial\Sigma} (\textbf{E}+\textbf{v}\times \textbf{B})\cdot \text{d}\textbf{l}$? Is this (non-conservative) $\textbf{E}$ present (still with $\nabla\times \textbf{E}=-\frac{\partial \textbf{B}}{\partial t}=0$)?
When the two plates are connected with a resistor I should expect a current. But the emf seems to be still zero.
Question 2: Is this one of those Faraday's paradox cases?
Now, from the results, the book wants me to find $\sigma$ using the same formula of a plain capacitor with vacuum between the plates.
But only the conduction electrons would be shifted, every other charge would be stuck. This is not the case in which charges are (macroscopically) separated by vacuum.
Question 3: How could I use Gauss's law to get $E=\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0}$? Are the charges really uniformly distributed? Since the finite width $c$ of the plate, wouldn't the electrons be shifted towards the negative verse of the velocity (due to the arising component of the Lorentz force during their motion)?
Extra question: what would happen in the reference frame of the plate?
Edit: Just to emphasize the answers of what's bugging me. (@honeste_vivere pardon my insistence; if you suggest to move the edit as a separate question I will).
Is it correct to state the following?
The net electric field inside the conductor is zero (in its rest frame). This is due to the field induced by the charges, which has opposite verse than the external one. Gauss' law is to be applied to the distribution of charges using the field induced by the charges. Moreover we can ignore the fact that this is not the case in which two metallic plates are separated by vacuum, but, instead, we have fixed metal ions and moving electrons (there is not a macroscopic separation between negative and positive charges).
When I connect the two sides of the plate with a wire (of resistance R), as long as the wire is moving with the plate (not some fixed rails along which the plate is moving), nothing should happen after the capacitor has charged (i.e. the electrons have moved to one surface). Emf is still zero (integral form of Faraday's law) and no constant current is flowing. The exercise in the book is wrong assuming there is such current.