0
$\begingroup$

I always see it is conventional (in Landau-Lifshitz for example) to decompose the angular velocity vector to 2 components: axis of symmetry and angular momentum vector, and then define the angular momentum part as $\Omega_p$, meaning the precession component. My question is, why? Why not orthogonal components? Why is the angular momentum component considered the precession component? Is it a mere definition?

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

The direction of change for the angular momentum vector follows a circle which lies in a plane defined by the torque vector and its rate of change. Calculations for that circular motion are most easily handled by using a component of the angular momentum which lies in that plane.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.