In my atomic lecture notes calculating the changes with spin-orbit coupling for a one electron atom they describe the $|n,l,s,j,m_j \rangle$ states as being used to 'diagonalise the spin-orbit perturbation' since the previous $|n,l,s,m_l,m_s \rangle$ basis was degenerate.
However if the perturbation $\Delta H \propto \vec{s} \cdot \vec{l} \propto \frac{1}{2} (j(j+1) -l(l+1) - s(s+1))$ then don't the states $|n,l,s,m_l,m_s \rangle$ completely diagonalise both the perturbation and the initial $H_{atom}$ Hamiltonian i.e. aren't they just the exact energy eigenstates, rather than just the $0^{th}$ order approximation?
I should note that the initial $H_{atom} = \frac{p^2}{2m} + U(r)$ where $U(r)$ is some central potential, but we have not included other electron-electron repulsion effects yet.
Is something similar also true for multi-electron atoms with spin-orbit coupling?