# Does an imaginary expectation value correspond to 0? [closed]

If an expectation value is purely imaginary, then the real component is obviously 0. Because expectation values are real quantities, does this mean that the expected value must be 0? I feel like this pretty self-explanatory but I want to be able to confidently put this on my assignment.

• What is an expectation value? Is there a context? Jan 23 at 23:46
• Your question is contradictory. You assume the possibility of an imaginary EV but then acknowledge that such a thing cannot exist. You can have an imaginary EV but it will not correspond to any observable/Hermitian operator. Jan 24 at 0:23
• @Drjh That's an answer. Jan 24 at 0:31