My question is about the perturbative expansion of the S-matrix using Dyson's expansion.
Let the Lagrangian density of the $\phi^4$ theory be \begin{equation} \mathcal{L} = \frac{1}{2}\left[\partial_\mu\phi(x)\right]^2 - \frac{m^2}{2}\phi(x)^2 - \frac{\lambda}{4!}\phi(x)^4, \end{equation} from which we find the Hamiltonian density \begin{equation} \mathcal{H}(x) = \underbrace{\frac{1}{2}\left[ \dot\phi^2 + (\nabla\phi)^2 +m^2\phi^2 \right]}_{\mathcal{H}_0} + \underbrace{\frac{\lambda}{4!}\phi^4}_{\mathcal{H}_1}. \end{equation} Now, to expand \begin{equation} S = T\mathrm{e}^{-i\int\mathrm{d}^4z\mathcal{H}_I(z)}, \end{equation} we clearly need to identify $\mathcal{H}_I$ in the interaction picture. This is where I start to get confused. The Hamiltonian $H_I$ is given by \begin{equation} H_I = \mathrm{e}^{iH_0t}H_1\mathrm{e}^{-iH_0t}, \end{equation} which reduces to $H_I=H_1$ only if $[H_0,H_1]=0$. However, all of the textbooks I've seen simply use $\mathcal{H}_1$ (as above) for $\mathcal{H}_I$ in computing the S-matrix.
Here is my question: It is not clear to me that $[H_0,H_1]=0$, which would surely require $[\mathcal{H}_0,\mathcal{H}_1]=0$ (?), which implies that $[\partial_\mu\phi,\phi]=0$. However, this latter commutator does not seem to give zero when the mode expansion is used. Furthermore, I am not entirely sure how the condition $[H_0,H_1]=0$ is inferred from the Hamiltonian density. Does one need to evaluate $[\mathcal{H}_0(x),\mathcal{H}_1(x)]$, IE at the same point in spacetime?
I know that this is a small point, but I hate not knowing the logic going from one step to the next, so if anyone could shed light on the justification for using $\mathcal{H}_1$ for $\mathcal{H}_I$, I would be very appreciative.