I am working through some questions and I am stuck on the working of this one:
Where the working to the answer is here:
Can someone explain the highlighted section as I can't see where it comes from?
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$\begingroup$ The area of a sphere is $4\pi r^2$. $\endgroup$– joseph hCommented Dec 18, 2020 at 23:33
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$\begingroup$ @Drjh where does the $\frac{1}{R^2}$ factor come from? $\endgroup$– Σ baryonCommented Dec 18, 2020 at 23:35
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$\begingroup$ Possible duplicates: physics.stackexchange.com/q/488220/2451 and links therein. $\endgroup$– Qmechanic ♦Commented Dec 18, 2020 at 23:36
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$\begingroup$ @Qmechanic interesting. However, I am having trouble understanding the more explicit working to the solution as I cant see how the transition was made from the surface integral to the $4\pi R^2 \cdot \frac{1}{R^2}$ $\endgroup$– Σ baryonCommented Dec 18, 2020 at 23:42
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3$\begingroup$ The site standard for math expressions is Mathjax which is very similar to LaTex. We strongly discourage posting images of text or equations as they are not searchable by the site engine and in the case of photos of written script often hard to read. $\endgroup$– StephenG - Help UkraineCommented Dec 19, 2020 at 0:40
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Here is the more explicit working I found for this question which is what I was interested in:
