0
$\begingroup$

I am trying to compute, without using Feynman diagrams, the scattering amplitude in $\phi^4$ theory with three incoming and three outgoing particles. (See this question for an outline of $\phi^4$ theory.)

Let's restrict out attention to the case that three $\phi$-particles interact to give a single new $\phi$ particle, which then react to give a new set of three $\phi$-particles. (So the Feynman diagram is a tree graph.)

Initial and final states (with details of normalization omitted; they are not related to my question): $$ |i\rangle = \sqrt{8\omega_{\vec p_1}\omega_{\ldots}} a^{\dagger}_{\vec p_1}a^{\dagger}_{\vec p_2}a^{\dagger}_{\vec p_3} |0\rangle\\ |f\rangle = \sqrt\ldots a^{\dagger}_{\vec p_1'}a^{\dagger}_{\vec p_2'}a^{\dagger}_{\vec p_3'} |0\rangle\\ $$

I am sure the answer is a constant times $$ (-i\lambda)^2 \frac{i}{(p_1+p_2+p_3)^2-m^2}, $$ where $p_1,p_2,p_3$ are the $4$-momenta of initial particles. But I am not sure about whether I have got the correct constant in the front.

Here is how I get the constant.

I first use wick's theorem and consider contractions of the product $$ \phi(x)^4\phi(y)^4 $$ any of the $\phi(x)$ can be contracted with any of the $\phi(y)$, giving $4 \times 4 =16$ possible contractions. (We do not need to consider other contractions, including ones with more than four $\phi$'s contracted, since they are not part of the amplitude we are going to find - we are going to annihilate 3 particles and create three new ones.)

Next, of the remaining six $\phi$'s that are not contracted, any one of them can be used to annilate or create any of the particles $\vec p_j,\vec p_j'$. This gives $6!$ permutations.

The second-order term in Dyson series has the coefficient $\frac{(-i)}{2}$. The interaction term in $\phi^4$ has coefficient $\frac{\lambda}{4!}$. Putting all these numbers together, I end up with the coefficient $$ \frac{16 \times 6!}{2\times 4!\times 4!}=10, $$ which seems quite large.

Is the answer $$ 10(-i\lambda)^2 \frac{i}{(p_1+p_2+p_3)^2-m^2} $$ correct?

Is the number $10$ correct?

Apparently, symmetric factors are not something to worry about, because we are calculating from first principles. (And anyway, the Feynman diagram I mentioned has symmetric factor $1$.)

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ These 6! contractions that you are talking about do not all correspond to the same diagram. Some of them have your 3 initial particles all going to one vertex and the 3 final particles to the other. Then your propagator is in the s-channel as you have written. But other contractions have 1 or 2 initial & final particles at the same vertex. Then your propagator is in the t-channel. You need to identify these separately. $\endgroup$
    – kaylimekay
    Dec 14, 2020 at 12:01
  • $\begingroup$ @kaylimekay Thank you for the hint. I now work out that $6!$ should be replaced by $2\times 3!\times 3!$, where $3!$ comes from permuting the initial and final 3 particles, and $2$ comes from the ordering - we can either first create $3$ new particles and then annihilate the old ones, or do annihilate first before creating. Is that right? $\endgroup$
    – Ma Joad
    Dec 14, 2020 at 12:34
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, and this precisely cancels the factors in your denominator, so the overall coefficient is 1. $\endgroup$
    – kaylimekay
    Dec 14, 2020 at 12:50

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

Assuming you take the interaction term to be $\lambda/4!$ then, from the Feynman rules, the vertex for the interaction is indeed $-i\lambda$.The lowest order diagram is indeed three particles coming in, one (intermediate) propagator and three particles coming out. So you have indeed $(-i\lambda)^2$ times the propagator.

fyi it is quite cumbersome and even passé to do this calculation working out the contractions explicitly. That is what Feynman diagrams are for.

$\endgroup$
6
  • $\begingroup$ Is $10$ the correct coefficient? (That's what I am asking.) $\endgroup$
    – Ma Joad
    Dec 14, 2020 at 11:26
  • $\begingroup$ What do you get when you draw the appropriate Feynman diagram(s)? $\endgroup$ Dec 14, 2020 at 11:29
  • $\begingroup$ It doesn't seem to be $10$, but I do want to know where it goes wrong. Could you explain it a little bit? Thanks. $\endgroup$
    – Ma Joad
    Dec 14, 2020 at 11:32
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Feynman diagrams are quick, but direct calculations helps us to find out the rules of Feynman diagrams, which is the point. $\endgroup$
    – Ma Joad
    Dec 14, 2020 at 11:33
  • $\begingroup$ Think again about the $6!$. $\endgroup$ Dec 14, 2020 at 11:40

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.