In the context of Classical Field Theory, we know that irreducible representation are labelled by the values of the two Casimir operators of the Poincaré group: we can have massive fields $P^2=m^2>0$ with a certain spin $s$, $W^2=m^2s(s+1)$, or massless fields $P^2=m^2=0$ with a certain helicity $h$, $W^\mu=h P^\mu$.
Now, I want to obtain all the irreps of the Lorentz group (Poincaré representations are induced by these) for different values of $m$ and $s,h$ as projective representations, that is using the representation of the spin group which covers $SO(1,3)$. After some steps (see this) we understand that we are looking for complex representations of $SL(2,\mathbb{C})\times SL(2,\mathbb{C})$ (that is a tensors product of two copies of the same representation and they act on bispinor, a spinor and an anti-spinor) in order to obtain irreducible unitay representations of the Lorentz group for different types of fields (different values of mass and spin/helicity).
How do we do this?
For example:
- I want a spin-0 representation ($m>0$ and $s=0$), so I expect that, since there is no spin, the spin representation is trivial $R_0(I_{\mu\nu})=0$ ($I_{\mu\nu}$ are the 6 generators of the Lorentz group) which act on a "trivial bispinor", which is just a 1-component real field (a scalar field). This is easy
- I want a spin-$1\over 2$ representation ($m>0$ and $s={1\over 2}$), so I expect that, since a $1\over 2$-spinor has 2 components, the spin representation is a $4\times 4$ complex matrix $R_{1\over 2}(I_{\mu\nu})=\sigma_{\mu\nu}$ which act on a bispinor with 4 complex values (a spinor field). This is easy too, since we know that the (Weyl) representation of $SL(2,\mathbb{C})\times SL(2,\mathbb{C})$ in this case is just the defining representation of $SL(2,\mathbb{C})$ $\times$ the complex conjugate of the defining representation of $SL(2,\mathbb{C})$.
- I want a spin-1 representation ($m>0$ and $s=1$), so, using the same arguments, I expect a bispinor with 6 components. Is this correct? How can I say that this is a four-vector complex field? Are they two different representation of the same field (like Weyl and Dirac representation for $1\over 2$-spin fields)?
Of course I know that it is a four-vector field, but I was wondering if there is an "easy way" to say that using a sort of heuristic argument like the one that I used in the previous examples.