The fictitious force is due to an object's inertia when the reference frame does not move inertially, and thus begins to accelerate relative to the free object. The fictitious force thus does not arise from any physical interaction between two objects, such as electromagnetism or contact forces, but rather from the acceleration a of the non-inertial reference frame itself, which from the viewpoint of the frame now appears to be an acceleration of the object instead, requiring a "force" to make this happen.
The first line says pseudoforces arise due to inertia. The very next line says that they arise due to acceleration of the reference frame itself.
I agree with the second point. However, the first point is a bit confusing.
The first point seems reasonable when describing the pseudoforce on the upper part of our body in a bus when the bus suddenly stops or starts.
However, when describing pseudoforces like centrifugal force, it makes no sense to me. Can anyone explain how is it so?
The way I phrase my question is somewhat ambiguous. Here's a more clearer one.
My question is not about centrifugal force, my question is how centrifugal force can be explained as a result of inertia.
I meant it to be the first point, not the concept.