I have a question to this proof here: Adding a total time derivative term to the Lagrangian
I was asking myself why $$\frac{\partial \dot{F}}{\partial \dot{q}} = \frac{\partial F}{\partial q}.\tag{1}$$ So to add a bit of context: We consider the Lagrangian $\mathcal L^{*} = \mathcal L(q, \dot{q}, t) + \frac{dF}{dt},$ where $F(q, t)$ is only a function of $q$ and $t$.
Now, $$\frac{\partial \dot F}{\partial \dot q} = \frac{\partial F}{\partial q} \Leftrightarrow \frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial F}{\partial \dot{q}} - \frac{\partial F}{\partial q} = 0, \tag{2}$$ implying that $F(q,t)$ has to satisfy the E.L. equation.
But why should it, if it is chosen arbitrarily? I hope you know what I mean, thanks!