If I got it right, the buoyancy force is a result of pressure changes exerted by the gravitational force. Archimedes’ law then generally predicts the buoyant force to be $\rho_\text{fluid} Vg$. What I fail to understand is why when I calculate the total force due to pressure around a sphere of radius $R$ for example, I don't get exactly this force, but the force factored by some constant. Following is an example of what I'm talking about for the sake of making myself clear, I'm not concerned about specific examples:
$$F_\text{buoyancy}=\int_{0}^{2\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi}\rho_\text{fluid} gh\,R^{2}\sin\theta d\theta d\varphi$$ when putting $h = -R(cos\theta-1)$ for the depth of some infinitesimal surface area, we get:
$$F_\text{buoyancy}=-2\pi g\rho_\text{fluid} gR^{3}\int_{0}^{\pi}(\cos\theta-1)\sin\theta d\theta=4\pi R^{3}\rho_\text{fluid}g$$
In this calculation for example, I'm missing a $\frac{1}{3}$ factor in order to get Archimedes law right. Does that mean the buoyancy force isn't generally just the pressure exerted on a body? Or am I missing something? Seems too close to be a coincidence.