3
$\begingroup$

What leads to magnetic monopoles existing before the Inflationary Epoch and becoming infinitely diluted during inflation (if indeed that is the explanation to their absence), but the electric monopoles we know today, namely the quarks and electrons, only forming at the end of the Electroweak Epoch? Indeed, if our thinking is correct, Electromagnetism didn't even exist prior to electroweak symmetry breaking, so in what sense can we even talk about magnetism or magnetic monopoles during the Grand Unified Epoch or earlier?

$\endgroup$
3
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Source your claim. $\endgroup$
    – user220348
    Oct 26, 2020 at 0:33
  • $\begingroup$ How is this different from this previous question of yours? Any reason you found "monompoles are much heavier" unconvincing? Are you looking for a different explanation? $\endgroup$ Oct 27, 2020 at 19:46
  • $\begingroup$ That question was only partially answered. The mass explains the asymmetry between the two particles but not why would only appear after symmetry breaking and the other not. $\endgroup$ Nov 4, 2020 at 11:19

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.