1
$\begingroup$

I know that in general the following statement is true: $$\langle\phi|\chi\rangle = \langle\chi|\phi\rangle^* $$

And for the operator $A$ then the following identity also holds: $$ \langle \psi| A|\phi\rangle = \langle\phi|A^\dagger |\psi \rangle$$

Does this mean that (1) implies (2)

$$| \psi\rangle = |\chi\rangle|\phi\rangle\tag1$$ $$\langle \psi|= \langle\phi|\langle\chi|\tag2$$

since I assume$$ \langle\psi|\psi\rangle = 1?$$

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, my apologies, I've fixed it. $\endgroup$
    – DJA
    Commented Oct 18, 2020 at 16:56

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

If you are dealing with a composite system as it seems, you don’t need to change the order of $\psi$ and $\phi$ from (1) to (2), since the first (second) ket/bra always refers to the first (second) subsystem of your larger system. Along the same reasoning, you don’t need to change the order if the two kets/bras refer to two different degrees of freedom of the same system

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ So you mean the convention already suggests that only the bra/kets that are in the same Hilbert space will interact with one another? $\endgroup$
    – DJA
    Commented Oct 18, 2020 at 16:51
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Yes, you can say it like that $\endgroup$
    – Milarepa
    Commented Oct 18, 2020 at 17:14

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.