Why the frequency of sound can vibrate the object if the frequency of both is the same (resonance)? I mean what actually happens so that sound can vibrate an object? If both frequencies are subjected to constructive interference then resonance, why doesn't the sound only increase in amplitude rather than vibrate the object it is exposed to?
I read some articles, it just says that both the frequency of sound and object is the same without explaining the process why it can vibrate an object
 A: 
I mean what actually happens so that sound can vibrate an object?

Sound is a propagating pressure wave. If you are at a fixed point in space then a sound wave will cause increases and decreases in air pressure that oscillate over time. This means that the forces the air exerts on object's oscillates when sound waves are present. If the force is oscillating at a natural frequency of the object, then this will cause the object to vibrate more than if the frequency was some other value. This is resonance.

If both frequencies are subjected to constructive interference then resonance, why doesn't the sound only increase in amplitude rather than vibrate the object it is exposed to?

What would be increasing the sound amplitude if the object wasn't vibrating? The vibrating object will push on the air around it thus adding to the sound that is already present.

I read some articles, it just says that both the frequency of sound and object is the same without explaining the process why it can vibrate an object.

The simple example of resonance is a mass on a spring. The spring-mass system has a natural frequency of oscillation. If you drive the spring with an external force oscillating at this same frequency, then the system will have a huge response and oscillate with a large amplitude. If the external force varies at a sufficiently larger or smaller frequency, then this effect will almost vanish.
Here is a recent video I saw about resonance.
