When a particle decays into 2 particles why do we assume we have angular momentum quantization at all?

So ive been encountering several exercises where we have a particle decay (into two other particles) and we're asked to calculate the, say, CM orbital angular momentum of the outgoing 2 particles (based on our knowledge of spins of the particles in question and angular momenta algebra). This is a straightforward exercise to solve but I am left with the question of why do we assume angular momentum is quantized in the first place?

Take the particle before it decays. There is no mention of external forces we assume it's a free particle. It has quantized spin, sure, but a free particle has no (to the best of my knowledge) quantized orbital angular momentum, so how do we compute $$J$$ (i.e. total angular momentum) in this case? can we even talk about $$J$$ at all? The same applies to the outgoing particles, why do we assume they have quantized orbital angular momentum? All I see is two free particles which, again, have no quantized orbital angular momentum.

• Free electrons can have orbital angular momentum. See this article here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… and this post on PSE physics.stackexchange.com/q/414758 Sep 25, 2020 at 10:20
• Well, that's a surprise. So is orbital AM always quantized? Sep 25, 2020 at 10:49
• In the realm of quantum scales, yes. Sep 26, 2020 at 0:26
• @Leonid quantization arises when there are potentials with a solution to the quantum mechanical state that gives specific angular momentum wavefunctions Sep 26, 2020 at 4:39