I'm misunderstanding something very important regarding magnetic force and its relation to velocity.
According to the Lorentz force, the magnetic force ${\mathbf {F_B}}=q{\mathbf {v}}\times {\mathbf {B}}$. Assuming the charge is not moving, then ${\mathbf {v} = \begin{pmatrix}0&0&0\end{pmatrix}}$. Therefore, ${\mathbf {F_B}=0}$.
So why when I hold a magnet close to a piece of metal, I can feel the magnet applying a force on the piece of metal? Since the piece of metal and the magnet are not moving, shouldn't the net magnetic force be 0? I assume the force I am feeling is from the magnetic field from the magnet and the charges in the piece of metal.