I'm self studying Quantum mechanics from Griffiths. Now I'm at the Harmonic oscillator potential. All my questions raised after defining the ladder operators $a_-$ and $a_+$. If $\psi$ satisfies the time independent Schrodinger equation then too $a_-\psi$ with energy $(E-\hslash\omega)$ such that:
$H(a_-\psi)=(E-\hslash\omega)(a_-\psi)$
Applying the lowering operator repeatedly eventually I'm going to reach a state with energy less than zero, It's written that according to some problem (which says that the energy must exceed the minimum value of $V(x)$), and such state does not exist!
That's mean that he refutes that the potential can be less than zero. I don't get why is that? That was a the first question.
Now for the second question I have to write what was exactly written:
"We know that $(a_-\psi)$ is a new solution to the schrodinger equation, but there is no guarantee that it will be normalizable$-$it might be zero, or its square-integral might be infinite"
I get that so far, what I don't get:
"In practice it is the former: There occurs a "lowest rung" (call it $\psi_0$) such that
$(a_-\psi)$=0"
How? Or is it a must to enforce it?
That's all and thank you for your time anyway.