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I was reading a little about atomic structure and i came across the formula:

angular momentum of an electron=$\sqrt{(l)(l+1)}\frac{h}{2\pi}.....(1)$

also i know the bohr quantisation rule i.e

$$mvr=\frac{nh}{2\pi}.....(2)$$

Somehow $(1),(2)$ don't correlate.Where am i making a mistake?.

Thanks in advance

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Eqn (2) comes from semi classical-quantum model proposed by Bohr and eqn(1) comes from quantum mechanical model by using Schrodinger's equation. These two are completely different concept so if you can't get any correlation then that's good cause you're not supposed to get one. For more details I'll ask you to study about angular momentum in quantum mechanics and then it'll be more clearly understandable for you.

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