For 2 coupled electrons, the possible spin wavefunctions are:
\begin{align*} \chi_{1,1} = \upuparrows,\quad \chi_{1,-1}=\downdownarrows\ \end{align*} \begin{align*} \chi_{1,0}=\frac{1}{\sqrt2}(\uparrow\downarrow+\downarrow\uparrow)\quad(symmetry), \ and\quad\chi_{0}=\frac{1}{\sqrt2}(\uparrow\downarrow-\downarrow\uparrow)\quad(anti-symmetry). \end{align*} I'm now considering the spin wavefunction of 4 electrons, and trying to distinguish different cases yield the total spin equal to 0. Since
\begin{align*} \frac{1}{2}\otimes\frac{1}{2}\otimes\frac{1}{2}\otimes\frac{1}{2} = 2⊕1⊕1⊕1⊕0⊕0 \end{align*} I'm wondering how to spot the two '0' subspaces in the right-hand-side (direct sum part), I think like two electrons case, the total spin wavefunction, in this case, should be anti-symmetric, so should one of them correspond to $\chi_{0}\otimes\chi_{0}\ $? (which is the superposition of 'superposition states'?) If so, what's the other '0' subspace? Also, the tensor product of which two spin wavefunctions would produce the '0' in other subspaces (like 1 and 2)?
Thanks!!