As per the Big Bang model of Cosmology roughly 13.8 billion years ago a singularity exploded exponentially to eventually become the present universe.

At the present time (basically current time-slice) we have all the space which according to the said model was crunched into a singularity. My question is whether two distinct space points in the current time-slice correspond to two distinct points inside the singularity (at big bang or as soon as the notion of space-time could be considered) or could they have been a single point as well?

I haven't studied cosmology (as evidenced by this rather immature question) so it would be really helpful to put things in a simple manner.

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    $\begingroup$ My question is whether two distinct space points in current time-slice correspond to two distinct point before big bang. There is no “before” the Big Bang, so the question doesn’t make sense. $\endgroup$
    – G. Smith
    Sep 1, 2020 at 16:30
  • $\begingroup$ @G.Smith So, let me modify to consider the time-slice when something like space-time came into existence. $\endgroup$ Sep 1, 2020 at 16:32
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    $\begingroup$ Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/136860/2451 and links therein. $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Sep 1, 2020 at 16:35
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    $\begingroup$ The question Did the Big Bang happen at a point? ie closely related to this. $\endgroup$ Sep 1, 2020 at 16:35
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    $\begingroup$ @asymptoticallyboundedgluon the geometry is undefined at the singularity, which is of course what makes it singular, so the question you ask has no answer. $\endgroup$ Sep 1, 2020 at 16:37

1 Answer 1


Two points that are different now correspond to two points that were different at any time after the Big Bang. Asking what happened at the Big Bang is not meaningful.


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