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We have a situation in which we deliberately let the magnetic field lines pass through only half of the area of the loop. So, while calculating magnetic flux do we only use that area from where field lines actually pass or just the total area of the loop?

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At this instant, is the area to be used 160 cm sq or 80 cm sq?

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    $\begingroup$ @NarutoUchiha Please post answers as answers, not as comments. $\endgroup$ – BioPhysicist Aug 29 at 12:12
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See the definition of flux is $$d(\phi) = B . d(S)$$

So wherever $$B = 0$$ $$\implies d(\phi) = 0$$

So at positions where Field is zero or where field lines do not pass, flux is zero.

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