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I have encountered on a textbook that established the relationship that intensity is proportional to the square of displacement amplitude and the square of angular frequency. However, the equation does not introduce the 1/r^2 law of intensity (as present in a spherical sound wave).

Is it valid to assume the intensity is uniform anywhere along the plane of propagation?

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  • $\begingroup$ Is the plane wave infinite? Also what do you mean by 'plane of propagation'? $\endgroup$
    – user45664
    Aug 29, 2020 at 2:40

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See, is the same thing. Proportional to the square of amplitude, but the amplitude is proportional to the inverse of the r distance, so, as you said, the intensity is proportional to the inverse of square of the r distance

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