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I have recently hit upon an idea with which I try to make an analogy between the Coriolis force ($\mathbf F = 2m\mathbf v \times \mathbf \Omega,$) and the Lorentz force ($\mathbf F = q\,\mathbf v \times \mathbf B\,$) due to an induced magnetic field. I see that these forces are generally incapable of doing work since they are perpendicular to the curved path of the particle, and they are both proportional to the velocity of the particle. The only difference is that the Coriolis force acts on any particle regardless of whether it is charged or neutral, whereas the Lorentz force is exerted on charged particles.

I try to design a thought experiment in which the Coriolis force is entirely eliminated by a Lorentz force both acting on a charged particle. Can someone tell me if this idea is plausible or if there are some references regarding this matter?

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Yes. The correspondence between the Lorentz force and the Coriolis force is the origin of the London magnetic moment of a spinning superconductor. A superconductor does not allow a magnetic field to penetrate it, but when the superconductor is spinning, the electrons perceive the Coriolis force as a magnetic field. The superconductor responds by creating a real magnetic field that cancels the Coriolis force.

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