My question is in regard of the following snippet provided by my textbook.
So why is the electromotive force (EMF) highest in the loop when $\theta$ = $90$ or $270$?
So the magnitude of the induced EMF will be determined by the rate at which the loop is rotating, according to Faraday's Law. EMF will be maximum when the rate of change of flux is at maximum.
But why does this means that the loop has moved to a position parallel to the magnetic field and the flux through the loop is zero? Since there is no magnetic field penetrates the area at that instant shouldn't there be no current? In turns, shouldn't there be no magnetic field?