Newton's first law states that given an ideal situation, any force applied on a body would change its state of motion and the object would continue to pursue that state, given no other force acts on the body. However, Newton's third law says that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force, so the assumption of the ideal and frictionless scenario is wrong, since we apply an action force, so according to Newton's third law there must inherently be friction present. Doesn't this nullify the presumption of the first law?
(Sorry if my thoughts do not appear clear, I tried my best to express them in words, and I would appreciate any feedback on my line of thought. Also, I've viewed similar questions but none seem to clarify this doubt of mine)