Consider a hypothetical particle, a particle which is devoid of any kind of potential energy. Suppose the particle is currently at rest. Now what we are gonna do is apply a force on this particle. My question is such...
The force should be responsible for supplying velocity or rather kinetic energy to the particle through work. In the absence of any work the particle stays at rest. Now for the force to be actually able to do any work on the particle, displacement should be involved. Now if the particle is already at rest and it cannot get any kind of velocity unless some work is done on it, then how can it move even the very first step? For movement it must have velocity, for velocity the force must do work, but how can it, if there is no displacement involved?
In some other real case this force could have compressed the particle a bit therefore storing some potential energy which can be used to start it's motion. But what about this case?
It may sound silly but I can't get over this fact, really... Where am I wrong?