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I am struggling to understand why we would predict the decay in correlation between the two measurements in a Bell Inequality experiment to be linear (see red line in this image from Wikipedia). I understand there is a max and min, that seems obvious. But why should we assume the function between those two points will be linear in the classic scenario? many thanks enter image description here

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  • $\begingroup$ what are you referring to exactly? Can you add a reference to the post, as well as the equations you are presumably thinking of? $\endgroup$ – glS Jul 13 at 16:01
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks , I have now added an image. I am referring to what the 'expected result' looks like as shown by the red line. Why would it be linear between the min and the max and not any other shape? $\endgroup$ – magnolia1 Jul 13 at 19:53
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    $\begingroup$ I see what you mean now. I edited the title in an effort to make it clearer. I think it's a good question as it stands now $\endgroup$ – glS Jul 14 at 7:23
  • $\begingroup$ thanks, nice title! $\endgroup$ – magnolia1 Jul 14 at 11:14

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